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RE: [Openvpn-users] OpenVPN server on a single-NIC machine?


  • Subject: RE: [Openvpn-users] OpenVPN server on a single-NIC machine?
  • From: "Michael B. Klein" <michael@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Fri, 1 Aug 2003 17:14:13 -0400
  • Importance: Normal

> Dick St.Peters wrote:
>
> When you say "show up", I suspect you mean something 
> involving Windows talking to Windows, and that "something" 
> probably does require broadcast.
> 
> If you have the following:
> 
>   client <==tunnel==> gateway <--ethernet--> server
> 
> and the client has a virtual IP address within the subnet 
> running on the ethernet, and the client and server can ping 
> each other, then the client is in the subnet at the network level.

I'm sorry, I'm afraid I wasn't clear about what's happening.  By "show up,"
I simply mean the ability to ping any private address on the server's subnet
other than the one on the tunnel server.  I can get my client assigned an IP
address on the correct subnet, but I can't ping the rest of the subnet from
it, or it from the rest of the subnet.  As Scott suggested, I'm looking into
Proxy ARP, but I thought I might have missed something more obvious.

Part of my conceptual problem is that I'm used to situations where the rest
of the subnet sits behind the VPN server, as opposed to simply next to it.
With the server using the same NIC (eth0) and IP address (192.168.230.204)
to talk to both the internet and the private subnet, the proper routing
technique escapes me.  I'm not routing between interfaces, or even different
IP subnets on the same interface, so what AM I doing?

Michael



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