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[Openvpn-users] Re: Briding question, could anybody answer plz?


  • Subject: [Openvpn-users] Re: Briding question, could anybody answer plz?
  • From: "Sttf" <vklengh@xxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Fri, 7 May 2004 12:27:21 +0200

 
Hello. I have two LAN VPN points. One with Win XP [A] (simple workstation, 1 ethernet card), and another with Linux [B](also with 1 ethernet card bridged with the tap one). Well. The issue is: I want to prepare both stations to be able to connect themself with OpenVPN and being able to connect also to other stations without VPN, standard communication. Even between them 2 also, if possible.
 
Then, in the first station (A) i did nothing special, ip 192.168.130.2, and the second one (B): 192.168.130.1
With tap issues, A: 10.30.20.2 ,  and B has no IP in its tap interface (Because of being bridged) to receive tunneled data.
 
So, the problem is that.... theoretically, B will need another virtual interface, so i added it with the simple ifconfig eth0 add 10.30.20.1. Well. Then... The VPN pings do not arrive between stations; i think because A tries to send the ping through the tunnel and B answers without tunneling (because of having an added interface). Could the tap0 interface have an own IP and be practicable?
 
So, the problem is, i supose, at the routing table level. What could i do? Maybe establishing lower metrics to the tap interface in (B) for the tap interface?  I tried doing that, adding the remote station (A) as a unique route with the interface tap0 as 'gateway' (route add 10.30.20.2 dev tap0). It didnt work. Should i create another tap interface instead of 'ifconfig eth0 add xxx' ? Which is the possible 'escape' with a bridged host/server if you want also it to receive connections from both, tunnel and simple ipv4?
 
Thanks.